When I happened to have had eluded-to the other day -- as to that the magnitude of the scalar amplitude of the Lagrangian-based tense of energy, that is of one specific quantum of energy, -- is to be equal to (-i)* (the magnitude of the scalar amplitude of the Hamiltonian-based tense of energy, that is of the self-same specific quantum of energy) -- to where, if one were to take the quaternion of both of these two said tenses of energy, -- one would then work to find out, that the value of the resultant scalar amplitude of both of these mentioned tenses of energy, is to then to be of the same magnitude ---- Tends To Only Be True, first of all, if both of the conditions are here to exist, that one is here to be dealing with a respective discrete set of quanta of energy, that operate to perform one specific function, -- that is here to act as a monopole of discrete energy, And, if both the correlative Lagrangian and the correlative Hamiltonian operator of the said quantum of energy, are here to be acting upon the same total degrees of spatial freedom. Yet anyways -- either manner in which one is here to be looking at this general concept -- the quaternion of the energy of the Lagrangian (which is of the respective gauge-metric) of a set of one or more discrete quanta of energy, that are of one respective whole unique system of operation, -- Will always tend to at least be analagous to the quaternion of the energy of the Hamiltonian (which is of the respective metric-gauge), that is of the self-same set of one or more discrete quanta of energy, that are of one respective whole unique system of operation.
I will continue with the suspense later! To Be Continued! Sincerely, Samuel David Roach.
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