Please Tell Me If This Makes Sense

 Editorial:

The following work; involves a "proof," as to my hypothesis, -- that the Bessel Function is "0," when the Zeta Number is (-i*e^2).

(The hyperbolic sine of (((i*PI)/4))^2 + (The hyperbolic cosine of (((i*PI)4))^2 = 0; 

Since, (The hyperbolic sine of (((i*PI)/4))^2 = -2, And, (The hyperbolic cosine of (((i*PI)/4))^2 = 2.

Thereupon; (The Absolute Value of The hyperbolic sine of (((i*PI)/4))^2) = 2 -- 

And; (The Absolute Value of the hyperbolic cosine of (((i*PI)/4))^2) = 2.

Consequently; (Please Bear With Me):

(((e^((i*PI)/4))*2)^2)*(((i*(the sine of (PI/4))/(The cosine of (PI/4)))*((((e^((The sine of (PI/4))*2))^2 = 

                                                                       (-i*e^2).

To my perception; this seems to work to elude to the condition, that when the Zeta Number is (-i*e^2), that the consequential Bessel Function that is thence to exist, is to result in the value of "0." SAM ROACH.